Kiểm tra tiếng anh unit 1

MY DAILY ROUTINE

My life is always full of activities, so I never have much time for myself. During the week it's the worst. I usually have to get up at half past six even though I would really prefer to sleep much later. I don’t usually have time for breakfast because I have to catch a bus to school at seven o'clock. The bus is usually packed with many people. Classes at school start at a quarter to eight except on Tuesdays when they start at seven. Each lesson is forty-five minutes long with ten minutes break in between.

After school I go shopping or just walk around the town for a while. Getting home, I listen to the radio, watch television and maybe get a snack. Then I start doing my homework or help my mom with some housework. Before I know it, the afternoon is gone and it is evening.

In my family, we usually eat dinner at about seven o'clock. At dinner we discuss what happened during the day and catch up with each others' lives. Then I have some time to watch the TV news. Sometimes it is an interesting film or a video.

On the weekend it is a different story. I sleep late and do whatever I wish with my free time. I can go for a trip with friends, visit relatives or devote more time to my hobbies. I think everyone will agree that weekends are much better than weekdays.

 

doc24 trang | Chia sẻ: leddyking34 | Lượt xem: 3382 | Lượt tải: 1download
Bạn đang xem trước 20 trang tài liệu Kiểm tra tiếng anh unit 1, để xem tài liệu hoàn chỉnh bạn click vào nút DOWNLOAD ở trên
on fire. A. bodyguard B. security office C. fire brigade D. police station 38. The alarm goes ____________at 6 o’clock and Nam starts a new day. A. on B. off C. back D. to 39. ____________is the study of living things. A. Physics B. Chemistry C. Science D. Biology 40. The man asked us to ____________the belt as the bus was coming to a bend. A. loosen B. fasten C. loose D. fast 41. We arrived home safe and ____________. A. sound B. soundly C. warm D. warmly 42. ____________, we didn’t know what to do but then John proposed an idea. A. Firstly B. At first C. Lastly D. At last 43. The food smells____________. Nobody wants to try it. A. good B. well C. bad D. badly 44. In the last minute, David ____________the ball to George and they scored one goal. A. kick B. kicks C. was kicking D. kicked 45. The farmers were working when they realized there was a small ____________along the field. A. fall B. stream C. lake D. pond II. GRAMMAR Exercise 1. Use the verbs from the box to fill in the blanks. Make any changes to the verb tenses when necessary. There are TWO verbs that are used TWICE. do drink arrive (2) wear love (2) have live be like (not) listen to play go Hi everybody! I'm The Present Simple Girl. I like habits and routines. I always (46)__________ the same things at the same time. For example, I always (47)__________ two glasses of milk in the morning and I usually (48)__________ at school at twenty-five past eight. I often (49)__________ jeans and T-shirts. I (50)___________ pop music. I also (51)____________ animals and plants. I (52)____________ a beautiful garden. I (53)____________ with my parents and my brother. He (54)___________ very different from me. He never (55)____________on time for lunch. He (56)____________ new clothes and fashion, but he (57)____________ pop music. He (58)____________ hard rock in a group called "Metal Bananas". We are in an English club called The Happy Verby Gang. We (59)____________ to the club on Saturdays. Exercise 2. Match the first half of the sentences from column A with the other half from column B. There are two extra options in column B. A B 60. Mrs Helena travels to work a. to get to the food stall. 61. They quickly put up the tent b. after the fire. 62. The staff started serving c. as soon as they arrived at the camping site. 63. Nobody was seriously hurt d. I have ever had during my life. 64. It was the most wonderful holiday e. when the hotel manager gave a signal. 65. It takes us twenty minutes f. when the plane took off. g. by motorbike. h. coming from the fire exits. III. ERROR IDENTIFICATION. There are 15 lines in the following passage. Put a tick (P) beside the line that has no mistake. If a line contains a mistake, underline it and write the correction in the space provided. Line 0 is given as an example. 0 In my country, more than 80% of the population are farmers. For that 0 _P_ 66 reason, farming is the most important occupations. Most of the 66 ___ farmers plant rice and raise cattle. Growing rice involves a lot of 67 ___ work such as pumping water, fertilizing, harrow and repairing the 68 ___ banks of the land. During the harvesting time, peasant have to go to 69 ___ 70 the field from early morning to late afternoon. They do not have 70 ___ many time to rest. Normally, each household has more than one 71 ___ plots of land. It usually takes them a week to gather the rice. 72 ___ Farming depends greatly on the weather. Two main crops are in 73 ___ summer and spring. In spring the weather sometime turns bad 74 ___ 75 with continual rain. Getting early and going to the field on rainy 75 ___ days will be hard work. Therefore, peasants always prefers sunny 76 ___ days. 77 ___ Nowadays, some peasants are also plant fruit trees and vegetables 78 ___ to earn more money. Some men even go to the city to be drivers cyclo 79 ___ 80 or work in factories to support his children in the countryside. 80 ___ IV. WRITING. Rewrite the following sentences using the word given so that the rewritten sentence has the same meaning as the original one. 81. My uncle decided to stop smoking local tobacco two years ago. (GIVE) _____________________________________________________________ 82. The teacher is satisfied with our results in Civic Education. (CONTENTED) _____________________________________________________________ 83. I have the habit of getting up late on the weekends. (ALWAYS) _____________________________________________________________ 84. Some of my classmates cycle to school every morning. (RIDE) _____________________________________________________________ 85. No one in the class got a higher mark in English than Tom. (HIGHEST) _____________________________________________________________ 86. During the break, the school canteen is full of students. (CROWDED) _____________________________________________________________ 87. They have to pay $50 for traveling every month. (SPEND) _____________________________________________________________ 88. Martina loves studying Information Technology the most of all subjects. (FAVOURITE) _____________________________________________________________ 89. After getting off the plane, I took a taxi to Sunrise Hotel at once. (IMMEDIATELY) _____________________________________________________________ 90. I think fishing for long hours is a waste of time. (INTERESTED) _____________________________________________________________ UNIT 2 Part I. phonetics Exercise 1. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. 1. A. mother B. love C. office D. one 2. A. family B. start C. ask D. father 3. A. school B. good C. book D. football 4. A. heavy B. headache C. weather D. each 5. A. travelling B. later C. language D. traffic Exercise 2. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. 6. A. rearrange B. following C. difficult D. suitable 7. A. capital B. Vietnamese C. attitude D. interesting 8. A. applicable B. conversation C. entertainment D. information 9. A. enjoy B. visit C. expect D. because 10. A. appearance B. behaviour C. consider D. memory Part II. READING Exercise 1. Read the following passage then answer questions 11 - 15. After each question there are four possible answers marked A, B, C, and D. Choose the correct answer by circling its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. 1 5 10 15 All students here come from very difficult backgrounds; there are street children, orphans, children of war-invalids, hearing-impaired students and young people from very poor families. This School provides us with free training in one of these areas: Vietnamese and Asian cooking, French and European cooking, French baking and pastry, restaurant and catering services, domestic service, sewing and embroidery. After one year of training at the school, full-time jobs are found for us and we could be working in any number of hotels, restaurants, private houses, Embassies or companies throughout Vietnam. To cover all the training costs, our school runs four businesses: a restaurant, a bakery, a catering service and a sewing & embroidery shop. These income-generating businesses also provide an excellent opportunity for us to gain valuable practical experiences. If you ever come to Vietnam, don’t miss the chance to taste delicious Vietnamese and French dishes at our restaurant. 11. Which of the statements is not true according to the text? A. The School accepts students who are in difficult situation. B. The students have to pay for their training. C. After the training, the School finds jobs for the students. D. The School sets up businesses in order to pay for its operation. 12. Which of the following businesses is not done by the School? A. sewing and embroidery B. catering service C. bakery D. tourism 13. Which of the following word has the closest meaning to “homeless children”? A. street children B. orphans C. children of war-invalids D. hearing-impaired students 14. The word “us” in lines 4, 8, and 13 refer to ___________ A. tourists B. the school authorities C. the students D. the school teachers 15. What is the main purpose of the text? A. To give information about the life of students from difficult circumstances. B. To point out the difficulties that the School is facing. C. To prove how successful the School becomes. D. To advertise the School. Exercise 2. Read the following passage then answer questions 16 - 25. My most favourite subject is English, which is today one of the most important languages in the world. (16) _______. English has become an international language for a variety of reasons. One of the most important of those is that the English people have been well-known for their knowledge of science, medicine, engineering, government and all other matters that are useful for the progress of the human race. (17) _______. In the same way, English scholars have studied the past and discovered many things which were useful to men in the early days were later forgotten by others. (18) _______ . The thirst for knowledge of the English scholars has contributed to the progress of man in almost all fields of his activity. (19) _______. Thus, people whose mother tongue is not English have learnt English with great interest as a means of acquiring knowledge of all human affairs. As a result of this interest, English is used almost everywhere in the world. (20) _______, such as in the United Nations. It is also used in all the leading universities in the world and in international trade and commerce. As it is used so widely, (21) _______. People of all the countries of the world have contributed new ideas and thoughts to this language. Thus, more and more new words are being created to make this language more and more useful for the communication of ideas and information among the peoples of the world. (22) _______. PART A: Seven sentences/ clauses have been removed from the text above. Choose from sentences (A - G) the sentence/ phrase which fits each gap (16-22). A. It is for all these reasons that I like to study the English language B. It is used in all the important meetings and conferences and debates C. It is spoken and understood in all parts of the earth D. Such things are now again being used, owing to the work of English scholars E. Thousands of books have been written by such scholars on almost every subject that one can think of F. It is thanks to the scientists of England that the motor-engine has become the most important machine in the world today G. English has indeed become a very rich language PART B: Choose the correct answer by circling its corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. 23. Which of the statements is NOT true according to the text? A. English has developed into an international language. B. The scientific progress has contributed to the popularity of English. C. English has been widely used in the world. D. English is the only important language in the world. 24. All of the following were mentioned in the text as reasons why English has become so popular EXCEPT FOR A. English people’s knowledge of medicine. B. English people’s wealth. C. English people’s discovery. D. English people’s thirst for knowledge. 25. Which of the following can be the best title for the text? A. English is an easy subject to learn. B. English is used almost everywhere in the world. C. English – the subject I like best. D. In the future, English will become the most popular language. Part III. USE OF ENGLISH I. VOCABULARY. Sentences 26 - 45 are incomplete. Choose one best word given in the box to complete each sentence. entertainment hobbies capital rest typical inappropriate enrolment specify applicable delete conversationalist origin marital status target semester occasion profession attitude opinion shopper 26. It is ______________ for the young to address the elderly by the first name in Vietnam. 27. In the countryside, there are few places of ______________ . 28. The first word of any name must be written in _____________ letters. 29. Vietnam is my country of ______________ . 30. You have to fill in an _____________ form if you want to join a school. 31. He is always late for school. It is ______________ of him. 32. My ______________ are studying English and collecting stamps. 33. After a two-period lesson, we usually have a short ______________ . 34. Please __________ the date so that I can arrange the time for the meeting. 35. Professor Lan Nguyen devoted his whole life to the teaching ________ . 36. I’m really sorry. This form is not _____________ to foreign students. 37. The ______________ of my life is to learn English well in order to pass the entrance examination to VNU-CFL. 38. Your computer has many empty folders. You should ___________ them. 39. A good ___________ is the one who has great skills of communication. 40. On the ______________ of International Women’s Day, I wish you good health and happiness. 41. After the ______________ finishes, we have a long summer holiday. 42. What is your ______________ of the new program? 43. A housewife is often a good ______________ because she knows how to bargain. 44. The words married, divorced, separated, widow refer to ___________ . 45. What is your ______________ to the students’ learning methods? II. GRAMMAR. Sentences 46 - 65 are incomplete. Choose from the four options given (marked A, B, C, and D) one best answer to complete each sentence by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. 46. Among Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and Literature, ______________ subject do you like most? A. what B. which C. A and B D. whose 47. ____________ would you like your steak? Rare, medium, or well-done? A. what B. which C. who D. How 48. To ______________ are you talking? A. whom B. who C. that D. A, B, and C 49. ______________ long have you been studying English? A. For how B. How C. A and B D. When 50. Don’t give up. ______________ not give it a try? A. If B. Have C. Why D. Whether 51. ______________ do you go? I want to know. A. Where B. To where C. A and B D. In which 52. I really enjoy ______________ with my mother. A. cook B. to cook C. cooked D. cooking 53. The streets in the city are so ______________ . A. narrowing and crowded B. narrow and crowd C. narrow and crowded D. A and C 54. Before you start, you have to answer the questions ______________ . A. following B. as follow C. as followed D. as following 55. Good preparation can help you ______________ the exams. A. to pass B. pass C. passing D. A and B 56. It took me two hours ______________ this homework. A. to finish B. finish C. finishing D. to finishing 57. Don’t worry too much about your failure. You have to let it __________ . A. go B. going C. to go D. A and B 58. Would you like _____________ to the movie with me? A. going B. to go C. A and B D. go 59. I am sorry but I’ve got _____________ you this. A. telling B. tell C. told D. to tell 60. I’m going to the bookshop _____________ some stuff. A. buying B. to buy C. buy D. bought 61. _____________ in pairs and in groups to discuss the question. A. Work B. To work C. Working D. A, B and C 62. Phong is a student at Chu Van An and he often rides a bike __________ . A. to the school B. to school C. school D. A and B 63. There’s no need _____________ over your past sorrow. A. crying B. cry C. cried D. to cry 64. There’s _____________ traffic in big cities. A. so many B. so few C. so much D. so on 65. It’s been nice _____________ you. A. meet B. to meet C. meeting D. met III. Error Identification: Read the text about My Favourite Teacher below. Nine of the lines contain an unnecessary word. Underline these words and write them in the spaces provided. Tick the correct lines. It was an English period and all of us are waited eagerly for our English teacher, Mrs. Hoa. She is very popular among us. In fact, she is a my favourite teacher. Mrs. Hoa has a short curly hair and wears thick glasses, which makes her to look strict. However, she is usually very close and is always ready to lend an ear to our problems. She is motherly and cares very much for us. I remember once when I fell and hurt my knees. Mrs. Hoa had helped me to stop the bleeding and took me to the clinic. I used to dislike English when I was younger because I found it very too complicated. Mrs. Hoa always makes English lessons interesting and easy to understand it. She is very patient in explaining English problems to us and always makes sure to everyone understands. With her help, my English has improved quickly. I have grown myself to love English and I always score high marks in my English tests now. And it’s all because of my favorite teacher. 66_____ 67_____ 68_____ 69_____ 70_____ 71_____ 72_____ 73_____ 74_____ 75_____ 76_____ 77_____ 78_____ 79_____ 80_____ IV. writing: Use the words given to make complete sentences. You can change the word form but CANNOT change the order. 81. I/ want/ study/ English/ because/ international/ language. _____________________________________________________________ 82. My/ house/ far/ school/ so/ I/ usually/ go/ school/ bike. _____________________________________________________________ 83. His/ family/ stuck/ heavy/ traffic/ more/ hour. _____________________________________________________________ 84. What/ he/ say/ his/ teaching/ profession/ yesterday? _____________________________________________________________ 85. How/ many/ hours/ you/ spend/ learn/ English/ every day? _____________________________________________________________ 86. Teachers/ usually/ have/ trouble/ remember/ their/ students’ names. _____________________________________________________________ 87. Why/ not/ you/ consider/ come/ over/ my/ place? _____________________________________________________________ 88. You/ better/ avoid/ drink/ beer/ because/ bad/ for/ liver. _____________________________________________________________ 89. It/ necessary/ bring/ conversation/ close/ before/ no one/ pay/ attention/ it. _____________________________________________________________ 90. I/ hope/ hear/ you/ soon. ____________________________________________________________ UNIT 3 Part I. PHONETICS Exercise 1. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. 1. A. enjoy B. November C. question D. when 2. A. champion B. ambition C. literature D. had 3. A. romantic B. humane C. Paris D. parent 4. A. atom B. education C. family D. tragic 5. A. met B. effort C. chemistry D. explain Exercise 2. Read the following pairs of words carefully and decide whether they have the same (S) or different (D) stress pattern. Word 1 Word 2 Same Different 6. general difficult c c 7. mature private c c 8. specialization determination c c 9. educate interrupt c c 10. mathematics scientific c c Part II. READING PASSAGE 1 Read the following passage then use the information taken from the text to complete the table that follows. Keira Knightley was born in Teddington, London, England on March 22, 1985. Keira wanted to act from an early age. When Keira was six, she asked her parents for an agent to manage her career. They accepted, but not until she agreed that she would only take acting jobs during the school holidays. After appearing in many plays and films, Keira got her first big break in Star Wars: The Phantom Menace in 1998, when she was 13. Only three years later Keira showed her acting ability as a disobedient teenager in the thriller The Hole. In the same year she played the part of a star footballer in a local girls’ team in the comedy drama Bend It Like Beckham. In this film she showed footballing talent as well as acting talent. This was Keira’s breakthrough role. As Lara Antipova in the 2002 remake of Doctor Zhivago, Keira found success with U.K. television viewers. When Pirates of the Caribbean: The Curse of the Black Pearl was released, Keira played Elizabeth Swann, the governor’s daughter who is kidnapped by a group of pirates. Soon afterwards, Keira was one among many stars in the film Love Actually. Although Keira’s last film King Arthur, was not a smash, at the age of 20 Keira has many more successful years to look forward to. Time Film 6 years old Ÿ have an (11)_________ to manage her career 13 years old Ÿ have her first big break Ÿ (12)_______________ (13)_________ years old Ÿ show her acting ability Ÿ The Hole Ÿ show her (14)_________ talent and acting talent Ÿ Bend It Like Beckham 17 years old Ÿ find success with U.K. television viewers Ÿ (15) _______________ PASSAGE 2 Read the passage below about Helen Keller and then do the two exercises that follow. Helen Keller was a scholar, a campaigner for civil rights and world peace, a philosopher, and an author. Born in Tuscumbia, Alabama on June 27, 1880, Helen was struck down by meningitis at the age of 18 months, which left her deaf and blind. For the next five years she was trapped inside her own silent world, unable to express herself to the outside world. In 1887, a young woman named Anne Sullivan was employed to teach Helen. Helen learned to understand speech when she was 10 by feeling her teacher’s mouth. She learned to read French, German, Greek, and Latin in Braille. When she was 20, she entered Radcliff College, the sister college of the prestigious Harvard University. Anne Sullivan stayed by Helen’s side to help her, acting as her eyes and ears and helping to spell books and lectures into her pupil’s hand. During her time at college, Helen wrote her first book, an autobiography called The Story of My Life. Helen later wrote eleven more books and many more articles. After graduating Helen enjoyed a new status as a symbol of hope and source of inspiration to all the disadvantaged people of the world. She worked tirelessly for the rights of others and Anne worked tirelessly to help her. Sadly, Anne’s health deteriorated and she died in 1936 after almost 50 years as Helen’s constant companion. Helen continued to give speeches and helped raise money for many organizations. From 1946 to 1957, she went around the world speaking about her experiences and the rights of people who are blind. She died in her sleep in 1968, aged 87. Exercise 1. Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F), based on the passage. Correct the false information. 16. Helen was unable to hear and see at birth. 17. Helen understood university lectures by reading what Anne wrote into her hands. 18. While at university, Helen wrote many books and articles. 19. The two women spent nearly 50 years of their lives together. 20. After her death, Helen Keller became a symbol of hope to the disadvantaged people in the world. Exercise 2. Answer the questions 21-25 using the information from the text. 21. Where and when was Helen Keller born? 22. What languages could she read? 23. How did Anne Sullivan help her pupil to learn in the university? 24. What is the name of Helen’s first book? 25. What did Helen do to help the disadvantaged people? Part III. USE OF ENGLISH I. VOCABULARY: The following sentences are incomplete. Supply the correct form of the words in parentheses to complete them. 26. Watching TV can be very _____________ (Educate). 27. _____________ (Science) have been working hard in the search for a cure for cancer. 28. There is now no _____________ (Possible) that she will make a full recovery. 29. He read the letter later in the _____________ (Private) of his own room. 30. There is a growing _____________ (Realize) that changes must be made. 31. They have held the _____________ (champion) for the past two years. 32. Despite having a good qualification, she found it __________ (extreme) hard to find a job. 33. This plan should _____________ (easy) the problem of traffic congestion in the city. 34. The forest will take 100 years to reach _____________ (mature). 35. Catherine’s _____________ (die) body lay peacefully in the bed. 36. He was both the _____________ (found) and president of the company. 37. She has been learning _____________ (France) for five years. 38. He fought the illness with courage and _____________ (Determine). 39. She didn’t _____________ (appearance) surprised at the news. 40. Diet plays an important role in the _____________ (manage) of heart disease. 41. She never achieved her _____________ (Ambitious) of becoming a famous actress. 42. These re

Các file đính kèm theo tài liệu này:

  • docTests.DOC
Tài liệu liên quan